Demonstration and Research Pest Control Practice Test

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• Which statement about Integrated Vector Management (IVM) is true?
• What signal words correspond to Slightly Toxic pesticides?
• The movement, dissipation, degradation, and accumulation of pesticides in the biosphere is described as what?
• Which term is defined as the ability to damage the nervous system?
• What is the difference between hazard and risk in pesticide safety?
• What term describes the scenario where pest resurgence occurs together with pest resistance, forcing higher pesticide rates and becoming unsustainable?
• What is an SDS and what key information does it provide?
• In research requiring pesticides with no EPA tolerance, end‑of‑study treatment for the commodities is to:
• What is the pesticide label best described as?
• At the end of a pesticide trial where no EPA tolerances exist, responsible action is to:
• What is "toxicology" in the context of pesticide safety?
• Name two environmental considerations when applying pesticides outdoors.
• FIFRA is administered by the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
• Newly introduced pests are highly destructive because their natural predators and parasites are not present. Which ecological factor is missing in such cases?
• Which statement about drift reduction practices in windy or sensitive areas is true?
• The phenomenon where pesticides are degraded more rapidly by populations of organisms previously exposed to the pesticide is called?
• Which pest management approach uses cultural methods, resistant crops, conservation of beneficial predators or parasites, and strategically applied pesticides to maximize benefit and minimize harm, assuming pest levels can be tolerable?
• In IPM, what is the central assumption about pest levels?
• Which option best demonstrates acting only when a pest threshold is reached?
• What PPE requirements are typically included on a pesticide label?
• Which term corresponds to the dose that produces an obvious toxic effect but does not kill the test animal?
• Section 24(c) SLN permits authorize states to do what in labeling?
• Pesticide resistance refers to genetic changes in pest populations in response to selection pressure from pesticides which allow the pest to survive pesticide applications at recommended rates. Survivors pass on more resistant genes.
• What signal words correspond to Moderately Toxic pesticides?
• _____ can be issued against a pesticide and they are final after five days unless the registrant asks for a hearing. Final decision must be made seven days after hearing.
• Which PPE is commonly required when handling pesticides, and when should it be worn?
• In IPM, which statement best describes action thresholds?
• What is buffer zone width guidance and who sets it?
• What is the term for the point at which damage caused by the pest equals or exceeds the cost of controlling it?
• Which class are broad spectrum insecticides that inhibit cholinesterase?
• Regarding color-coded hazard indicators on labels, what is their purpose?
• Which term denotes the toxic effect on the nervous system?
• Under FIFRA Lite, older pesticides were re-registered.
• A pesticide can be legally used on a food crop only if EPA has granted what?
• In pest identification, why is distinguishing pests by life stage important?
• IPM stands for Integrated Pest Management; what is its main purpose?
• The request for a 24(c) exemption can come from which groups?
• Sometimes the ET is zero due to consumer bias. What does this imply?
• In prospective/forward epidemiological studies, researchers group populations by exposure to a risk factor and then observe for adverse effects. Which factor is used for grouping?
• Cross resistance is defined as resistance to one chemical giving resistance to other, structurally similar compounds.
• What does FIFRA regulate?
• What is the Environmental Protection Agency's role in pesticide regulation?
• What are benign or reduced-risk pesticides and when are they preferable?
• The negligible risk standard adopted by the EPA in 1988 is defined as what level of cancer risk over 70 years?
• Lethal dose is usually measured in which units?
• The two Georgia laws are administered by the Commissioner of Agriculture.
• Which physical properties are used to describe a pesticide's behavior in the environment?
• Are clean, disease-free seed, adjusting planting and harvesting dates, good drainage, crop rotation, adequate fertilization, and field sanitation examples of which category of practices?
• Which term refers to the ability to induce mutation or a heritable change?
• What does IPM stand for and why implement it?
• Tilth refers to which soil characteristic?
• What is the primary purpose of an integrated pest management (IPM) plan?
• Name two types of traps used for pest monitoring in buildings.
• Which statement about IR-4 is true?
• What term describes the maximum residue levels on food that the EPA allows as legal and within acceptable risk?
• Pesticides reach surface water through these six routes.
• Conserving susceptible genes is accomplished by rotating pesticides of different chemical classes, spot-treating instead of area-wide sprays, and by leaving some pest generations untreated.
• Pesticides reach surface water through these six routes.
• What signal words correspond to Relatively Non-Toxic pesticides?
• A highly specific pesticide with minimal non-target organism impact is the selective _____ which inhibits synthesis of vital amino acids only in certain plants.
• GLP applies to which types of pesticide research?
• Which term means the ability to cause birth defects?
• Why is calibration of application equipment essential?
• IPM uses pesticides strategically to enhance effectiveness and lower overall use.
• Which term refers to the belief that a single molecule of an oncogenic agent may be enough to induce some cancers, invalidating the NOEL?
• What is the meaning of non-target effects? Choose the best description.
• What are the three key steps of an IPM decision-making process?
• Which term best describes the concept of Integrated Pest Management?
• After FIFRA Lite, many pesticides were discontinued because the cost of reregistration would not justify them. They were considered which type of pesticides?
• Soil mineral surface area can range from a _____ to a _____ square meters per liter.
• The two Georgia laws are the Georgia Pesticide Use and Application Act and the Georgia Pesticide Control Act.
• There are at least 685 species of insects, mites, fungi, and weeds with measurable levels of chemical resistance.
• Pesticides reach the soil through these routes.
• What is sanitation in pest control, and why is it important?
• Why should pesticides be kept in their original containers?
• What is the dose at which no measurable effects are observed in the most sensitive test species?
• LD50 is defined as what?
• Which sequence correctly describes proper response to a pesticide spill?
• How do you perform a basic pesticide calibration check on a handheld sprayer?
• How can you reduce the risk of pesticide resistance developing in pest populations?
• In 1993, Monsanto applied for the first transgenic pesticide with which organism that makes potatoes resistant to the Colorado potato beetle?
• Unlike toxicology, epidemiology focuses on hazards that are:
• Which of the following is a correct pairing of a common structural pest with its key management consideration?
• Which pair correctly identifies two common pesticide application methods and an advantage for each?
• Economic Threshold (ET) is defined as the point at which treatment is justified to prevent the pest population from reaching what level?
• For pesticides with no EPA tolerances, the end‑of‑study action for treated commodities is to:
• Which term describes the capacity to cause birth defects?
• Which federal act governs the registration and regulation of pesticides in the United States?
• Which term best describes pesticides designed to act at specific metabolic targets?
• The final handling requirement for commodities treated with pesticides lacking EPA tolerances is to:
• Why is post-application surveillance important?
• Which mg/kg range corresponds to the 'slightly toxic' category?
• What is the purpose of monitoring in IPM?
• What is a key advantage of baiting as an application method?
• According to the material, what effect does crop rotation have on pest numbers and diversity?
• What is the Worker Protection Standard (WPS) and who does it protect?
• Integration of methods in IPM means using multiple strategies to control pests thereby _____ selection pressure and _____ resistance.
• Organisms that become a problem after key parasite and predator species are killed are called:
• Which of the following are abiotic factors that influence pesticide degradation?
• In experimental pesticide testing, the fate of commodities without EPA tolerances is to be:
• What is the label on a pesticide product?
• IR-4 funding has what effect on minor-use pesticides?
• Disposal guidelines for pesticide waste are detailed in which manual?
• LC50 is used to measure toxicity in water and air and is expressed in which units?
• In experiments with pesticides that have no EPA tolerances, what must happen to the test commodities after the study?
• For cockroaches, what is a key management consideration?
• Which pairing correctly matches a toxicity category with its signal words and mg/kg range?
• Which term is used to describe the dose–response concept that implies a threshold below which no effect occurs?
• What term refers to the study of the occurrence and distribution of disease in populations and its relationship to contributing factors?
• For ants, which approach is commonly used?
• Which statement best illustrates non-target effects?
• Which of the following terms describes the movement, dissipation, degradation, and accumulation of pesticides in the biosphere?
• Which term describes resistance to many pesticides due to the existence of multiple, genetically controlled resistance mechanisms?
• Which section provides an emergency exemption allowing use of an unregistered pesticide due to lengthy registration time?
• What is monitoring in IPM and why is it important?
• Which class of pesticides inhibits cholinesterase?
• Approximately how many grocery store food items does the FDA routinely sample annually for pesticide residues?
• Registrations are canceled by the EPA _____ years after the last registration date if they are not renewed.
• What is drift reduction technology and when should it be used?
• Which term describes the ability to cause tumors or cancers?
• What is the definition of a pesticide label and why must it be followed?
• Which term is defined as the dose required to produce a negative response and implies the existence of a No Effect Level (NOEL)?
• The less genes involved in the physical functions that the pesticide interferes with, the _____ the selection pressure on those genes and the _____ resistance develops.
• For commodities exposed to a pesticide with no EPA tolerances, the correct action at study end is to:
• How does a systemic pesticide differ from a contact pesticide in terms of action within the plant or pest?
• Pesticide residues reach ground water through these two routes.
• What differentiates curative from preventive pest control?
• Why is water quality important when mixing pesticides?
• Intense selection factors encourage pests to
• How should leftover pesticides and containers be disposed?
• Section 18 exemptions are requested by the _____ to the _____ . Use is determined for a specific time and place.
• Which term describes the ability to cause birth defects?
• Which nozzle types are common and what do they influence?
• How should you verify the spray rate of a sprayer?
• Which organism is used as a highly selective insecticidal bacterium?
• EPA has established the _____ and the _____ for the level of pesticides in ground water.
• What is the purpose of traps and monitoring devices in pest management?
• Which term refers to pesticides that are generally more acutely toxic and inhibit a vital physiological process?
• What does REI stand for and what does it imply?
• What evidence-based approach reduces pesticide use in pest management?
• After completing a study involving pesticides with no EPA tolerances, the commodities must be:
• Conserving susceptible genes in pest populations has what effect on selection pressure?
• Which regulation includes workers who handle pesticides and requires posting treated areas, safety posters, decontamination facilities, emergency assistance, safety training, and surveillance during applications?
• What is the term for the combination of a substance's inherent toxicity and the amount of exposure to that product?
• What is the role of barriers in preventive pest control?
• A highly specific pesticide with minimal non-target organism impact is the insecticidal bacterium _____ which is highly selective against certain insect pests.
• How should you respond to a pesticide spill?
• Acute exposure refers to damage resulting from what type of exposure?
• Which term is defined as the dose needed to produce a negative response and indicates the existence of NOEL?
• When there are no EPA tolerances for a pesticide, the end‑of‑study directive for treated commodities is to:
• Which certifications relate to safety and label compliance for pesticide handlers?
• Biopesticides are desirable because of their selectivity and low risk to non-target organisms, but overuse can still cause what?
• Which term refers to the ability to induce an injury to a fetus?
• Section 24(c) exemptions are primarily used to:
• What are the signal words for a Highly Toxic pesticide and the corresponding dangerous dose range?
• Which program funds research needed to re-register pesticides for minor-use crops?
• What is a buffer zone and why is it important?
• What is the definition of a pest in pest control practice?
• Integrated Vector Management (IVM) approach is best described as?
• Integrated Pest Management (IPM) is defined as management practices that aim at keeping pests at economically insignificant levels.
• Which statement best describes the requirement for a 24(c) exemption?
• Economic Threshold is defined as the pest density at which action is taken to prevent reaching the Economic Injury Level. What is the correct pairing?
• Cross resistance occurs when resistance to one chemical gives resistance to other, structurally similar compounds.
• Which agency requires manufacturers to perform animal toxicity testing based on NOEL?
• Chronic toxicity refers to damage caused by what kind of exposure?
• Which concept best describes the idea that pest resurgence coupled with resistance leads to higher rates and unsustainable control?
• The Federal pesticide regulation law is the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.
• What term defines laboratory practices designed to ensure pesticide data submitted to the EPA is reliable, and applies to both field and laboratory research?
• Which pest control approach uses disease organisms that are released as biological control agents, valued for selectivity and low risk to non-target organisms, but can still face resistance with overuse?
• What is the function of rodent-proofing in buildings?
• Labeling requirements for bees and pollinators include?
• What is the purpose of using traps and monitoring devices in pest management?
• What is drift in pesticide application and how can it be reduced?
• Which statement best defines minor-use pesticides?
• The era of reliance on synthetic pesticides began about the time of which event?
• Which safety level is determined by the World Health Organization as the daily intake that will not significantly risk health over a lifetime, calculated by dividing NOEL by 100 to 1000?
• Which of the following is an insecticidal bacterium used to control pests?
• Toxic substances may enter the body through which four routes?
• Minor-use pesticides are commonly used on which type of crops?
• Which statement correctly describes the required handling of experimental commodities without EPA tolerances after study?
• Experimenters working with registered pesticides may dispose of concentrate, rinsate, and containers according to what guidance?
• The degradation and movement of a pesticide in soils depends on these four things.
• Which class of pesticides is an example of systemic insecticides used on plants?
• In trials where tolerances do not exist, commodities that were experiment treated must be ______ at study end.
• Which herbicide class inhibits synthesis of vital amino acids only in certain plants?
• What is a "systemic" pesticide and give an example?
• During IPM monitoring, which activity is essential?
• At the conclusion of a study, how should commodities that were treated with pesticides with no EPA tolerances be handled?
• Which two examples are considered critical label elements on a pesticide label?
• Which concept suggests that a single molecule of an oncogenic agent may be enough to initiate some cancers, thereby invalidating NOEL?
• Which term describes pesticides that are generally more acutely toxic and inhibit a vital physiological process?
• Georgia Pesticide Use and Application Act is the expansion of which Georgia law?
• For termites, what is a key management approach?
• Resistance development is slowed.
• There is a trend away from broad spectrum pesticides toward ______ pesticides which are aimed at certain metabolic action sites and sometimes, certain pest organisms.
• What does FIFRA stand for?
• Who enforces the pesticide residue allowances and tolerances for crops?
• What is a "contact" pesticide and how does it differ from a systemic pesticide?
• A highly specific pesticide with minimal non-target impact is _____ which disrupt insect growth, egg production, and caste differentiation in some social insects.
• In toxicity testing, the number of test animals usually exposed to each dosage level is about ____.
• Which clause defines zero tolerance for residues of carcinogenic pesticides in processed foods?
• What may be issued if it is determined that a pesticide poses an unreasonable risk to people or the environment?
• If there are no EPA tolerances for a pesticide, the end‑of‑study directive for the experimental commodities is to be:
• What term describes the damage a substance can do during a one-time exposure?
• What is the significance of label 'Caution' vs 'Warning' vs 'Danger'?
• Which statement best describes IPM's approach to pest control?
• What is a common sign of pesticide exposure in humans?
• Which practice best describes sanitation as part of IPM?
• For commodities exposed to a pesticide with no EPA tolerance, what must occur at study end?
• What is 're-entry' into a treated area and how is it controlled?
• What factors influence a pesticide's environmental persistence?
• Which type of epidemiological study groups populations according to adverse effects and then looks for associated factors?
• FIFRA Lite's goal included bringing older pesticides up to today’s testing capabilities and requiring
• Which statement best describes spray application in pest control?
• Which statement best describes LD50?
• Bt was registered in which year and is in how many pesticide products?
• What is a pest management threshold?
• LC50 is used to measure toxicity in which media and units?
• Georgia Pesticide Control Act is the expansion of which Georgia law?
• Under Section 24(c) SLN, a state may register a pesticide for use on a food crop only if which condition exists?
• How should pesticide containers be stored to prevent contamination and accidents?
• Which herbicides inhibit a key reaction in photosynthesis?
• HAL stands for which of the following in groundwater standards?
• One goal of Integrated Pest Management (IPM) is to deliver pesticides when necessary to provide the best and longest-lasting benefit with the underlying aim of what?
• In pesticide residue studies, commodities experimentally treated with pesticides for which there are no EPA tolerances must be _____ at the end of the study.