Demonstration and Research Pest Control Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which herbicides inhibit a key reaction in photosynthesis?
• How does a systemic pesticide differ from a contact pesticide in terms of action within the plant or pest?
• What is the term for the combination of a substance's inherent toxicity and the amount of exposure to that product?
• Which physical properties are used to describe a pesticide's behavior in the environment?
• Conserving susceptible genes is accomplished by rotating pesticides of different chemical classes, spot-treating instead of area-wide sprays, and by leaving some pest generations untreated.
• Which two examples are considered critical label elements on a pesticide label?
• Which statement correctly describes the required handling of experimental commodities without EPA tolerances after study?
• Which herbicide class inhibits synthesis of vital amino acids only in certain plants?
• What is an SDS and what key information does it provide?
• Labeling requirements for bees and pollinators include?
• Disposal guidelines for pesticide waste are detailed in which manual?
• LD50 is defined as what?
• The movement, dissipation, degradation, and accumulation of pesticides in the biosphere is described as what?
• Which statement about IR-4 is true?
• Which statement best defines minor-use pesticides?
• What is the Environmental Protection Agency's role in pesticide regulation?
• Which term best describes the concept of Integrated Pest Management?
• Which term is used to describe the dose–response concept that implies a threshold below which no effect occurs?
• Why is water quality important when mixing pesticides?
• Cross resistance is defined as resistance to one chemical giving resistance to other, structurally similar compounds.
• Pesticides reach surface water through these six routes.
• What is the label on a pesticide product?
• Which statement best describes LD50?
• Which pest management approach uses cultural methods, resistant crops, conservation of beneficial predators or parasites, and strategically applied pesticides to maximize benefit and minimize harm, assuming pest levels can be tolerable?
• Toxic substances may enter the body through which four routes?
• After completing a study involving pesticides with no EPA tolerances, the commodities must be:
• Which term refers to the ability to induce mutation or a heritable change?
• Which program funds research needed to re-register pesticides for minor-use crops?
• Newly introduced pests are highly destructive because their natural predators and parasites are not present. Which ecological factor is missing in such cases?
• Which class of pesticides inhibits cholinesterase?
• The era of reliance on synthetic pesticides began about the time of which event?
• What term describes the scenario where pest resurgence occurs together with pest resistance, forcing higher pesticide rates and becoming unsustainable?
• What is a common sign of pesticide exposure in humans?
• Tilth refers to which soil characteristic?
• Which statement about drift reduction practices in windy or sensitive areas is true?
• Which option best demonstrates acting only when a pest threshold is reached?
• Are clean, disease-free seed, adjusting planting and harvesting dates, good drainage, crop rotation, adequate fertilization, and field sanitation examples of which category of practices?
• Which section provides an emergency exemption allowing use of an unregistered pesticide due to lengthy registration time?
• The two Georgia laws are administered by the Commissioner of Agriculture.
• What is the function of rodent-proofing in buildings?
• Which statement best describes the requirement for a 24(c) exemption?
• What is the meaning of non-target effects? Choose the best description.
• Which federal act governs the registration and regulation of pesticides in the United States?
• GLP applies to which types of pesticide research?
• For cockroaches, what is a key management consideration?
• Integrated Vector Management (IVM) approach is best described as?
• Which regulation includes workers who handle pesticides and requires posting treated areas, safety posters, decontamination facilities, emergency assistance, safety training, and surveillance during applications?
• What is drift in pesticide application and how can it be reduced?
• What is the definition of a pesticide label and why must it be followed?
• The degradation and movement of a pesticide in soils depends on these four things.
• Which type of epidemiological study groups populations according to adverse effects and then looks for associated factors?
• At the end of a pesticide trial where no EPA tolerances exist, responsible action is to:
• What does FIFRA stand for?
• The two Georgia laws are the Georgia Pesticide Use and Application Act and the Georgia Pesticide Control Act.
• Name two types of traps used for pest monitoring in buildings.
• What is the purpose of traps and monitoring devices in pest management?
• Resistance development is slowed.
• What signal words correspond to Slightly Toxic pesticides?
• Which term is defined as the dose required to produce a negative response and implies the existence of a No Effect Level (NOEL)?
• In trials where tolerances do not exist, commodities that were experiment treated must be ______ at study end.
• What differentiates curative from preventive pest control?
• Why should pesticides be kept in their original containers?
• At the conclusion of a study, how should commodities that were treated with pesticides with no EPA tolerances be handled?
• What is the primary purpose of an integrated pest management (IPM) plan?
• Which mg/kg range corresponds to the 'slightly toxic' category?
• Which PPE is commonly required when handling pesticides, and when should it be worn?
• For pesticides with no EPA tolerances, the end‑of‑study action for treated commodities is to:
• Under Section 24(c) SLN, a state may register a pesticide for use on a food crop only if which condition exists?
• In IPM, which statement best describes action thresholds?
• Cross resistance occurs when resistance to one chemical gives resistance to other, structurally similar compounds.
• What term describes the maximum residue levels on food that the EPA allows as legal and within acceptable risk?
• The negligible risk standard adopted by the EPA in 1988 is defined as what level of cancer risk over 70 years?
• What is the term for the point at which damage caused by the pest equals or exceeds the cost of controlling it?
• IPM stands for Integrated Pest Management; what is its main purpose?
• _____ can be issued against a pesticide and they are final after five days unless the registrant asks for a hearing. Final decision must be made seven days after hearing.
• Sometimes the ET is zero due to consumer bias. What does this imply?
• IPM uses pesticides strategically to enhance effectiveness and lower overall use.
• Why is post-application surveillance important?
• When there are no EPA tolerances for a pesticide, the end‑of‑study directive for treated commodities is to:
• How should leftover pesticides and containers be disposed?
• Which of the following is a correct pairing of a common structural pest with its key management consideration?
• The final handling requirement for commodities treated with pesticides lacking EPA tolerances is to:
• For commodities exposed to a pesticide with no EPA tolerances, the correct action at study end is to:
• Which concept best describes the idea that pest resurgence coupled with resistance leads to higher rates and unsustainable control?
• What is the Worker Protection Standard (WPS) and who does it protect?
• What evidence-based approach reduces pesticide use in pest management?
• Lethal dose is usually measured in which units?
• Section 18 exemptions are requested by the _____ to the _____ . Use is determined for a specific time and place.
• Which safety level is determined by the World Health Organization as the daily intake that will not significantly risk health over a lifetime, calculated by dividing NOEL by 100 to 1000?
• How should pesticide containers be stored to prevent contamination and accidents?
• FIFRA is administered by the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency.
• What is a pest management threshold?
• What does REI stand for and what does it imply?
• A highly specific pesticide with minimal non-target organism impact is the insecticidal bacterium _____ which is highly selective against certain insect pests.
• Which term describes pesticides that are generally more acutely toxic and inhibit a vital physiological process?
• What PPE requirements are typically included on a pesticide label?
• Which term describes resistance to many pesticides due to the existence of multiple, genetically controlled resistance mechanisms?
• What is a "systemic" pesticide and give an example?
• What is the significance of label 'Caution' vs 'Warning' vs 'Danger'?
• Who enforces the pesticide residue allowances and tolerances for crops?
• Georgia Pesticide Control Act is the expansion of which Georgia law?
• Which practice best describes sanitation as part of IPM?
• In experiments with pesticides that have no EPA tolerances, what must happen to the test commodities after the study?
• Registrations are canceled by the EPA _____ years after the last registration date if they are not renewed.
• For termites, what is a key management approach?
• Which statement best describes spray application in pest control?
• Which term refers to pesticides that are generally more acutely toxic and inhibit a vital physiological process?
• Organisms that become a problem after key parasite and predator species are killed are called:
• Biopesticides are desirable because of their selectivity and low risk to non-target organisms, but overuse can still cause what?
• What signal words correspond to Moderately Toxic pesticides?
• Intense selection factors encourage pests to
• The Federal pesticide regulation law is the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act.
• Which term best describes pesticides designed to act at specific metabolic targets?
• In toxicity testing, the number of test animals usually exposed to each dosage level is about ____.
• There is a trend away from broad spectrum pesticides toward ______ pesticides which are aimed at certain metabolic action sites and sometimes, certain pest organisms.
• Which statement best illustrates non-target effects?
• Name two environmental considerations when applying pesticides outdoors.
• Pesticides reach the soil through these routes.
• Which term describes the ability to cause birth defects?
• Which agency requires manufacturers to perform animal toxicity testing based on NOEL?
• What is a buffer zone and why is it important?
• Which certifications relate to safety and label compliance for pesticide handlers?
• Which pest control approach uses disease organisms that are released as biological control agents, valued for selectivity and low risk to non-target organisms, but can still face resistance with overuse?
• What is monitoring in IPM and why is it important?
• Pesticide resistance refers to genetic changes in pest populations in response to selection pressure from pesticides which allow the pest to survive pesticide applications at recommended rates. Survivors pass on more resistant genes.
• What does FIFRA regulate?
• Which statement best describes IPM's approach to pest control?
• Which concept suggests that a single molecule of an oncogenic agent may be enough to initiate some cancers, thereby invalidating NOEL?
• Minor-use pesticides are commonly used on which type of crops?
• In pest identification, why is distinguishing pests by life stage important?
• Which clause defines zero tolerance for residues of carcinogenic pesticides in processed foods?
• In research requiring pesticides with no EPA tolerance, end‑of‑study treatment for the commodities is to:
• What signal words correspond to Relatively Non-Toxic pesticides?
• Which of the following are abiotic factors that influence pesticide degradation?
• In 1993, Monsanto applied for the first transgenic pesticide with which organism that makes potatoes resistant to the Colorado potato beetle?
• Which term refers to the ability to induce an injury to a fetus?
• Which class are broad spectrum insecticides that inhibit cholinesterase?
• LC50 is used to measure toxicity in water and air and is expressed in which units?
• What are the signal words for a Highly Toxic pesticide and the corresponding dangerous dose range?
• What is drift reduction technology and when should it be used?
• In prospective/forward epidemiological studies, researchers group populations by exposure to a risk factor and then observe for adverse effects. Which factor is used for grouping?
• Which term refers to the belief that a single molecule of an oncogenic agent may be enough to induce some cancers, invalidating the NOEL?
• What is a key advantage of baiting as an application method?
• For commodities exposed to a pesticide with no EPA tolerance, what must occur at study end?
• What factors influence a pesticide's environmental persistence?
• Which statement about Integrated Vector Management (IVM) is true?
• Which term denotes the toxic effect on the nervous system?
• Which pair correctly identifies two common pesticide application methods and an advantage for each?
• In experimental pesticide testing, the fate of commodities without EPA tolerances is to be:
• Pesticides reach surface water through these six routes.
• What is "toxicology" in the context of pesticide safety?
• The request for a 24(c) exemption can come from which groups?
• What term defines laboratory practices designed to ensure pesticide data submitted to the EPA is reliable, and applies to both field and laboratory research?
• Acute exposure refers to damage resulting from what type of exposure?
• What is sanitation in pest control, and why is it important?
• Which term corresponds to the dose that produces an obvious toxic effect but does not kill the test animal?
• What term refers to the study of the occurrence and distribution of disease in populations and its relationship to contributing factors?
• For ants, which approach is commonly used?
• Which term describes the capacity to cause birth defects?
• Bt was registered in which year and is in how many pesticide products?
• Which term is defined as the dose needed to produce a negative response and indicates the existence of NOEL?
• IR-4 funding has what effect on minor-use pesticides?
• A highly specific pesticide with minimal non-target organism impact is the selective _____ which inhibits synthesis of vital amino acids only in certain plants.
• What is the definition of a pest in pest control practice?
• FIFRA Lite's goal included bringing older pesticides up to today’s testing capabilities and requiring
• Regarding color-coded hazard indicators on labels, what is their purpose?
• Pesticide residues reach ground water through these two routes.
• Which term describes the ability to cause tumors or cancers?
• Which nozzle types are common and what do they influence?
• According to the material, what effect does crop rotation have on pest numbers and diversity?
• How should you respond to a pesticide spill?
• The phenomenon where pesticides are degraded more rapidly by populations of organisms previously exposed to the pesticide is called?
• Which class of pesticides is an example of systemic insecticides used on plants?
• What is the difference between hazard and risk in pesticide safety?
• Which term is defined as the ability to damage the nervous system?
• How should you verify the spray rate of a sprayer?
• There are at least 685 species of insects, mites, fungi, and weeds with measurable levels of chemical resistance.
• Why is calibration of application equipment essential?
• What does IPM stand for and why implement it?
• In IPM, what is the central assumption about pest levels?
• A highly specific pesticide with minimal non-target impact is _____ which disrupt insect growth, egg production, and caste differentiation in some social insects.
• Which sequence correctly describes proper response to a pesticide spill?
• In pesticide residue studies, commodities experimentally treated with pesticides for which there are no EPA tolerances must be _____ at the end of the study.
• Economic Threshold is defined as the pest density at which action is taken to prevent reaching the Economic Injury Level. What is the correct pairing?
• What are benign or reduced-risk pesticides and when are they preferable?
• Approximately how many grocery store food items does the FDA routinely sample annually for pesticide residues?
• Section 24(c) exemptions are primarily used to:
• If there are no EPA tolerances for a pesticide, the end‑of‑study directive for the experimental commodities is to be:
• Conserving susceptible genes in pest populations has what effect on selection pressure?
• Chronic toxicity refers to damage caused by what kind of exposure?
• Section 24(c) SLN permits authorize states to do what in labeling?
• Experimenters working with registered pesticides may dispose of concentrate, rinsate, and containers according to what guidance?
• Under FIFRA Lite, older pesticides were re-registered.
• Soil mineral surface area can range from a _____ to a _____ square meters per liter.
• What are the three key steps of an IPM decision-making process?
• The less genes involved in the physical functions that the pesticide interferes with, the _____ the selection pressure on those genes and the _____ resistance develops.
• What is the pesticide label best described as?
• LC50 is used to measure toxicity in which media and units?
• Which term means the ability to cause birth defects?
• How do you perform a basic pesticide calibration check on a handheld sprayer?
• What is 're-entry' into a treated area and how is it controlled?
• EPA has established the _____ and the _____ for the level of pesticides in ground water.
• What is a "contact" pesticide and how does it differ from a systemic pesticide?
• Georgia Pesticide Use and Application Act is the expansion of which Georgia law?
• HAL stands for which of the following in groundwater standards?
• What is the dose at which no measurable effects are observed in the most sensitive test species?
• What may be issued if it is determined that a pesticide poses an unreasonable risk to people or the environment?
• Integration of methods in IPM means using multiple strategies to control pests thereby _____ selection pressure and _____ resistance.
• Which organism is used as a highly selective insecticidal bacterium?
• What is the purpose of using traps and monitoring devices in pest management?
• After FIFRA Lite, many pesticides were discontinued because the cost of reregistration would not justify them. They were considered which type of pesticides?
• How can you reduce the risk of pesticide resistance developing in pest populations?
• Economic Threshold (ET) is defined as the point at which treatment is justified to prevent the pest population from reaching what level?
• Integrated Pest Management (IPM) is defined as management practices that aim at keeping pests at economically insignificant levels.
• What term describes the damage a substance can do during a one-time exposure?
• Which pairing correctly matches a toxicity category with its signal words and mg/kg range?
• Unlike toxicology, epidemiology focuses on hazards that are:
• What is the purpose of monitoring in IPM?
• What is buffer zone width guidance and who sets it?
• A pesticide can be legally used on a food crop only if EPA has granted what?
• Which of the following is an insecticidal bacterium used to control pests?
• What is the role of barriers in preventive pest control?
• Which of the following terms describes the movement, dissipation, degradation, and accumulation of pesticides in the biosphere?